1Z0-805: Upgrade to Java SE Programmer Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
What design pattern does the Drivermanager.getconnection () method characterize?
A. DAO
B. Factory
C. Singleton
D. composition
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Given the code fragment:
dataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new DataFormat object that displays the default date format for the UK
Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getDateInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale(UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getDateInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getDateInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getDataInstance (DataFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getDateInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale(UK));
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Given the code fragment:
List<Person> pList = new CopyOnWriteArrayList<Person>();
Which statement is true?
A. Read access to the List should be synchronized.
B. Write access to the List should be synchronized.
C. Person objects retrieved from the List are thread-safe.
D. A Person object retrieved from the List is copied when written to.
E. Multiple threads can safely delete Person objects from the List.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Given a resource bundle MessageBundle, what is the name of the default bundle file?
A. MessageBundle.profile
B. MessageBundle.xml
C. MessageBundle.java
D. MessageBundle.properties
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
Which three must be used when using the Java.util.concurrent package to execute a task that
returns a result without blocking?
A. ExecutorService
B. Runnable
C. Future
D. Callable
E. Thread
F. Executor
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three enum constants are defined in FilevisitResult?
A. CONTINUE
B. SKIP_SIBLINGS
C. FOLLOW_LINKS
D. TERMINATE
E. NOFOLLOW_LINKS
F. DELETE_CHILD
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 7
Which is true regarding the java.nio.file.Path Interface?
A. The interface extends WatchService interface
B. Implementations of this interface are immutable.
C. Implementations of this interface are not safe for use by multiple concurrent threads.
D. Paths associated with the default provider are not interoperable with the java.io.File class.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
The two methods of course rescue that aggregate the features located in multiple classes are
A. Inheritance
B. Copy and Paste
C. Composition
D. Refactoring
E. Virtual Method Invocation
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 9
Which two statements are true?
A. Implementing a DAO often includes the use of factory.
B. To be implemented properly, factories rely on the private keyword.
C. Factories are an example of the OO principle "program to an interface."
D. Using factory prevents your replication from being tightly coupled with a specific Singleton
E. One step in implementing a factory is to add references from all the classes that the factory will
merge.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 10
The advantage of a CallableStatement over a PreparedStatement is that it:
A. Is easier to construct
B. Supports transactions
C. Runs on the database
D. Uses Java instead of native SQL
Answer: C

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1Z0-804: Java SE Programmer II Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two forms of abstraction can a programmer use in Java?
A. enums
B. interfaces
C. primitives
D. abstract classes
E. concrete classes
F. primitive wrappers
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which four are true about enums?
A. An enum is typesafe.
B. An enum cannot have public methods or fields.
C. An enum can declare a private constructor.
D. All enums implicitly implement Comparable.
E. An enum can subclass another enum.
F. An enum can implement an interface.
Answer: A,C,D,F

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two compile?
A. interface Compilable {
void compile();
}
B. interface Compilable {
final void compile();
}
C. interface Compilable {
static void compile();
}
D. interface Compilable {
abstract void compile();
}
E. interface Compilable {
protected abstract void compile ();
}
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which is a key aspect of composition?
A. Using inheritance
B. Method delegation
C. Creating abstract classes
D. Implementing the composite interface
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which two properly implement a Singleton pattern?
A. class Singleton {
private static Singleton instance;
private Singleton () {}
public static synchronized Singleton getInstance() {
if (instance == null) {
instance = new Singleton ();
}
return instance;
}
}
B. class Singleton {
private static Singleton instance = new Singleton();
protected Singleton () {}
public static Singleton getInstance () {
return instance;
}
}
C. class Singleton {
Singleton () {}
private static class SingletonHolder {
private static final Singleton INSTANCE = new Singleton ();
}
public static Singleton getInstance () {
return SingletonHolder.INSTANCE;
}
}
D. enum Singleton {
INSTANCE;
}
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement declares a generic class?
A. public class Example < T > { }
B. public class <Example> { }
C. public class Example <> { }
D. public class Example (Generic) { }
E. public class Example (G) { }
F. public class Example { }
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
Which code fragment correctly appends "Java 7" to the end of the file /tmp/msg.txt?
A. FileWriter w = new FileWriter("/tmp/msg.txt");
append("Java 7");
close();
B. FileWriter w = new FileWriter("/tmp/msg.txt", true);
append("Java 7");
close();
C. FileWriter w = new FileWriter("/tmp/msg.txt", FileWriter.MODE_APPEND);
append("Java 7");
close();
D. FileWriter w = new FileWriter("/tmp/msg.txt", Writer.MODE_APPEND);
append("Java 7");
close();
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 8
An application is waiting for notification of changes to a tmp directory using the following code
statements:
Path dir = Paths.get("tmp")
WatchKey key = dir.register (watcher, ENTRY_CREATE, ENTRY_DELETE, ENTRY_MODIFY) ;
In the tmp directory, the user renames the file testA to testB,
Which statement is true?
A. The events received and the order of events are consistent across all platforms.
B. The events received and the order of events are consistent across all Microsoft Windows
versions.
C. The events received and the order of events are consistent across all UNIX platforms.
D. The events received and the order of events are platform dependent.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Which two statements are true about RowSet subinterfaces?
A. A JdbcRowSet object provides a JavaBean view of a result set.
B. A CachedRowSet provides a connected view of the database.
C. A FilteredRowSet object filter can be modified at any time.
D. A WebRowSet returns JSON-formatted data.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe {
synchronized void doIt();
}
B. abstract class ThreadSafe {
synchronized abstract void doIt();
}
C. class ThreadSafe {
synchronized static void soIt () {}
}
D. enum ThreadSafe {
ONE, TWO, Three;
synchronized final void doIt () {}
}
Answer: C

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1Z0-554: Oracle Application Development Framework Essentials Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
What type of object is being described here?
“It provides a way to co-ordinate regions on a page. It can be raised or consumed only with a
method binding that must be only data control methods, not managed bean methods.”
A. An action event
B. A method call
C. A task flow call
D. A contextual event
E. A router
F. A data control
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
An application module is named MyAppModule. No Java component is defined for the module
but the application does define a base class that extends oracle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario?
A. Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1. java extends the base
class.
B. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C. No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java component
named MyAppModuleImp1. java does not exist.
D. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E. The MyAppModule. xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
In which two places do you configure managed beans?
A. In the page definition file
B. In the faces-config.xml file
C. In the adfc-config.xml file
D. In the Property Inspector
E. In the task flow definition files
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Identify two advantages that ADF Model offers the developer.
A. It insulates the developer from needing to know about the specifics of the underlying business
services implementation.
B. It enables the developer to abstract application navigation from the physical pages.
C. It saves time In that it allows the developer to quickly build business services from database
tables.
D. It enables the developer to bind UI components directly to tables and columns in the database.
E. It provides the developer with a generalized approach to binding services and UI components.
Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 5
What type of event listener can be triggered at different points In the JSF life cycle?
A. Action listener
B. Selection listener
C. Launch listener
D. Phase listener
E. Value change listener
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6
Identify the business component that is being described below.
“It is a smart data service containing a data model of master-detail queries that your client
interface needs to work with. It also provides a transaction and database connection used by the
components it contains.”
A. a service method
B. a transaction
C. an application module
D. a view object
E. a task flow
F. a data control
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which type of object is being described here?
“They handle events or some manipulation of data that is best handled at the front end. They are
bash ally java classes with a no arg constructor that you register with the application in task flow
files.”
A. Task flows
B. Event listeners
C. Action methods
D. Managed beans
E. Contextual events
F. Backing beans
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which component CANNOT be packaged into an ADF Library JAR file?
A. ADF Business Components
B. Task flows
C. Task flow templates
D. ADF Library JAR files
E. Declarative components
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
In which file would you expect to find all the attribute accessor for a view object?
A. View. Java
B. Viewlmpl.java
C. ViewDefImp1.java
D. ViewRowlmp1.java
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
When granting a user or role access to a group of pages, it is best practice to grant that user or
role access to what type of file or component?
A. Page definition file
B. Bounded task flow including the page(s)
C. Unbounded task flow including the page(s)
D. . jspx file
E. Entity objects included in the UI
Answer: A

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1Z0-146: Oracle Database 11g Advanced PL/SQL Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Which three actions can be performed by using the DBMS_ASSERT package to prevent SQL
injection? (Choose three.)
A. Detect a wrong user.
B. Check input string length.
C. Verify qualified SQL names.
D. Validate TNS connect strings.
E. Verify an existing schema name.
F. Enclose string literals within double quotation marks.
Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 2
Examine the settings for a user session given below:
RESULT_CACHE_MODE= FORCE
What would be the implications of this setting on query execution? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All query results are stored in the result cache if possible.
B. Query results that are bigger than the available space in the result cache are not cached.
C. Query results are stored only when you explicitly use the /*+ result_cache */ hint in your query.
D. Query results are stored even when you explicitly use the /*+ no_result_cache */ hint in your
query.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
When do you use static SQL as a technique for avoiding SQL injection?
A. when the WHERE clause values are unknown
B. when the code contains data definition language (DDL) statements
C. when all Oracle identifiers are known at the time of code compilation
D. when the SET clause values are unknown at the time of code compilation
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the
DBMS_ASSERT package.
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 5
Which two statements are true about associative arrays and varrays? (Choose two.)
A. Only varrays must use sequential numbers as subscripts.
B. Only varrays can be used as column types in database tables.
C. Both associative arrays and varrays must use sequential numbers as subscripts.
D. Both associative arrays and varrays can be used as column types in database tables.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements are true about the query results stored in the query result cache? (Choose
two.)
A. If any of the tables used to build a query is modified by an ongoing transaction in the current
session, the query result is not cached.
B. A query result based on a read-consistent snapshot of data that is older than the latest
committed version of the data is not cached.
C. Adding the RESULT_CACHE hint to inline views enables optimizations between the outer
query and the inline view, and the query result is cached.
D. A query result for a query that has a bind variable is stored in the cache and is reused if the
query is equivalent even when the bind variable has a different value.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 7
Which statements are true about temporary LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They can be created only for CLOB and NCLOB data.
B. They can be accessed only by the user who creates them.
C. They generate more redo information than persistent LOBs.
D. They exist for the duration of the session in which they are created.
E. They are stored temporarily in the default tablespace of the user who creates them.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 8
Identify the method that is used by fine-grained access (FGA).
A. using policy functions to generate predicates dynamically
B. creating triggers on corresponding tables to generate dynamic predicates
C. modifying the existing application code to include a predicate for all SQL statements
D. creating views with necessary predicates, and then creating synonyms with the same name as
the tables
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Identify two strategies against SQL injection. (Choose two.)
A. Using parameterized queries with bind arguments.
B. Use subprograms that are run with the definer's right.
C. Use RESTRICT_REFERENCE clauses in functions that use dynamic SQLs.
D. Validate user inputs to functions that use dynamic SQLs built with concatenated values.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 10
Identify the component of the PL/SQL hierarchical profiler that uploads the result of profiling into
database tables.
A. the trace file component
B. the analyzer component
C. the shared library component
D. the data collection component
Answer: B

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1Z0-144: Oracle Database 11g Program with PL/SQL Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1

What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?

A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is

consistent within a user session.

B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.

C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active

sessions.

D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all

current active sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Users with definer's rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be

granted access to the table itself.

B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server

avoids the parsing overhead of SQL statements at run time.

C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for

execution by multiple users to speed up performance.

D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or

function that is written in a different programming language, such as C or Java.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 3

Identify two situations where the DBMS_SQL package should be used. (Choose two.)

A. The select list is not known until run time.

B. The dynamic SQL statement retrieves rows into records.

C. You do not know how many columns a select statement will return, or what their data types will

D. You must use the %found SQL cursor attribute after issuing a dynamic SQL statement that is

an insert or update statement.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 4

Which two statements art true about the instead of triggers' (choose two.)

A. Delete operations cannot be performed using the instead of triggers.

B. The instead or triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.

C. The instead of triggers can be written only for views, and the before and after timing options are

not valid.

D. The check option for views Is not enforced when Insertions or updates to the view are

performed by using the instead of trigger.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 5

Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)

A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.

B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.

C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.

D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the

LOOP.

E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration

of the loop

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 6

Identify two features of obfuscation. (Choose two.)

A. The Import and Export utilities accept wrapped files.

B. SQL' Plus cannot process the obfuscated source files.

C. Only the wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

D. Both the DBMS_DDL package and the Wrap utility can obfuscate multiple programs at a time.

E. The source code is visible only through the DBA_SOURCE view and not through the

USER_SOURCE or ALL_SOURCE View

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 7

In which of the following scenarios would you recommend using PL/SQL records?

A. when you want to retrieve an entire row from a table and perform calculations

B. when you know the number of elements in advance and the elements are usually accessed

sequentially

C. when you want to create a separate lookup table with multiple entries for each row of the main

table, and access it through join queries

D. when you want to create a relatively small lookup table, where the collection can be constructed

in memory each time a subprogram is invoked

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 8

Which two statements are true about the usage of the cursor for loops? (Choose two.)

A. The cursor needs to be closed after the iteration is complete.

B. The implicit open, fetch, exit, and close of the cursor happen.

C. The record type must be explicitly declared to control the loop.

D. The PL/SQL creates a record variable with the fields corresponding to the columns of the

cursor result set.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 9

Which tasks must be performed during the installation of the UTL_MAIL package?

(Choose all that apply.)

A. setting the UTL_FILE_DIR initialization parameter

B. running the UTLMAIL.SQL and prvtmail.plb scripts

C. setting the SMTP_OUT_SERVER initialization parameter

D. using the CREATE DIRECTORY statement to associate an alias with an operating system

directory

E. granting read and WRITE privileges to control the type of access to files in the operating system

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 10

Which two statements are true about triggers? (Choose two.)

A. All the triggers that are created on a table cannot be disabled simultaneously.

B. Any user who has the alter privilege on a table can create a trigger using that table.

C. Oracle provides a two-phase commit process whether a trigger updates tables in the local

database or remote tables in a distributed database.

D. Triggers become invalid if a dependent object, such as 3 stored subprogram that is invoked

from the trigger body is modified, and have to be manually recompiled before the next invocation.

Answer: C,D

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1Z0-102: Oracle Weblogic Server 11g System Administration I Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
An EJB application is targeted to a cluster. Remote EJB clients can therefore take advantage of
WebLogic Server’s load balancing and failover capabilities.
However, a proxy server exists between the clients and the cluster, which performs IP address
translation. Which cluster attribute should you modify to ensure that load balancing and failover
work correctly?
A. Multicast Address
B. Persistent Store
C. Cluster Address
D. Migration Basis
E. Replication Channel
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Identify three options for Keystores in a server's configuration.
A. Demo Identity and Demo Trust
B. Demo Identity and Java Standard Trust
C. Java Standard Identity and Custom Trust
D. Custom Identity and Demo Trust
E. Custom Identity and Custom Trust
F. Custom Identity and Command Line Trust
Answer: A,E,F

QUESTION NO: 3
Identify three properties required by the domain Configuration Wizard when creating a new
domain.
A. machine name
B. Managed Server name
C. domain startup mode
D. domain name
E. administrator username and password
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 4
Which can be associated with multiple domains?
A. Cluster
B. Server Log
C. Node Manager
D. Administration Server
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement is true about the java Node Manager?
A. It runs on Windows not on Linux
B. In its secure form, it uses one-way SSL.
C. It does not use the nodemanager.domains file, whereas the script-based Node Manager.
D. Unlike the script based Node Manager, it should not be run as an operating system service
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
When a typical application utilizes a JDBC data source, the process involves several steps.
Identify three of these steps.
A. The application returns the connection to the data source.
B. The application looks up the data source using the JNDI name.
C. The application tests the connection to verify the database's availability.
D. The application adds a new connection to the data source if none are available.
E. The application requests a connection from the data source.
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 7
Which three statements are true about the Change Center in administration console?
A. The Change Center has a link to view the changes made so far.
B. The Change Center is available only in a Production Mode domain.
C. The Change Center has a link to view any servers that need to be restarted.
D. After activating the changes to a server's configuration, you must always restart that server.
E. In a Development Mode domain, the configuration lock can be acquired automatically.
F. Changes must always be activated before they can be undone.
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 8
Which three tasks are required to use JDBC session persistence for a web application?
A. Enable automatic migration on each server.
B. Create the session database table.
C. Configure SSL on each server.
D. Edit the weblogic.xml descriptor.
E. Create a multi data source.
F. Create a JDBC data source.
Answer: B,D,F

QUESTION NO: 9
An application fails. The exception indicates that the JDBC data source, jdbc-hr.HRDS, cannot be
found. Identify two possible steps that you can perform to verify the data source’s availability.
A. Launch the JDBCDiagnostics utility.
B. Verify the Targets attribute of the application.
C. Verify the Dependencies attribute of the data source.
D. Verify the target server’s JNDI tree in the console.
E. Verify the Target attribute of the data source.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 10
Which answer best describes how you can start the Java-based version of the Node Manager?
A. W1scontrol.sh (.cmd in Windows)
B. Wisifconfig.sh (.cmd in Windows)
C. startNodeManager.sh (.cmd in Windows)
D. startNM.sh (.cmd in Windows)
Answer: C

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1Z0-054: Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in
the SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL
statements. (Choose two.)
A. Running SQL Access Advisor
B. Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C. Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D. Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which three factors influence the optimizer's behavior while choosing an optimization approach
and goal for a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A. parsing of a SQL statement
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. object statistics in the data dictionary
D. the OPTIMIZER_MODE initialization parameter
E. optimizer SQL hints for changing the query optimizer goal
Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 3
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You
imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version that contains important SQL
statements. You are not sure about the elapsed time that the SQL statements will have in the new
system due to the version change of the optimizer. Which tool provides a comparative report with
respect to the elapsed time in both versions of the optimizer?
A. SQL Access Advisor
B. SQL Tuning Advisor (STA)
C. SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) compare period report
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
The database application developers are planning to make some major schema changes such as
creating new indexes and materialized views. They want to check the net impact of these changes
on the workload performance. This activity has to be performed in the production database, so
they want only the query part of the data manipulation language (DML) statements to be executed
so that the side effects to the database or user data can be prevented. What should they use to
achieve this?
A. Database Replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
You upgraded database from the Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. To test the
performance SQL on the upgraded database. You want to build the before-change performance
data by using SQL Performance Analyzer .Which method would allow the task to execute quickly?
A. the EXPLAIN PLAN method
B. the TEST EXECUTE method
C. the COMPARE PERFORMANCE method
D. the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE parameter set to TRUE
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
Identify the type of recommendation that can automatically be implemented by the Automatic
Tuning Advisor as part of automatic SQL tuning task?
A. recommendation for SQL profiles
B. recommendation about effective indexing
C. recommendation about stale or no statistics
D. recommendation about the structure of SQL statements
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines.
(Choose two.)
A. Cursor cache
B. Stored outline
C. SQL Tuning Set
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 8
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty
buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the
same cache.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 10
You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You received many
complaints from users about degraded performance. Your senior DBA asked you to execute the
following command to improve the performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe_log STORAGE(BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table having one
million rows. Which factor could be a reason for this recommendation?
A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. The automatic Program Global Area (PGA) is not configured.
C. The CURSOR_SPACE_FOR_TIME initialization parameter is set to FALSE.
D. The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten using a materialized view.
Answer: D

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1Z0-851: Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Exam Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Given
11. public interface Status {
12. /* insert code here */ int MY_VALUE = 10;
13. } Which three are valid on line
12?
(Choose three.)
A. final
B. static
C. native
D. public
E. private
E. private
F. abstract
G. protected
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which two code fragments correctly create and initialize a static array of int elements? (Choose
two.)
A. static final int[] a = { 100,200 };
B. static final int[] a;
static { a=new int[2]; a[0]=100; a[1]=200; }
C. static final int[] a = new int[2]{ 100,200 };
D. static final int[] a;
static void init() { a = new int[3]; a[0]=100; a[1]=200; }
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
Given:
11. String test = "Test A. Test B. Test C.";
12. // insert code here
13. String[] result = test.split(regex);
Which regular expression, inserted at line 12, correctly splits test into "Test A", "Test B", and "Test
C"?
A. String regex = "";
B. String regex = " ";
C. String regex = ".*";
D. String regex = "\\s";
E. String regex = "\\.\\s*";
F. String regex = "\\w[ \.] +";
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 4
Given:
11. static void test() throws Error {
12. if (true) throw new AssertionError();
13. System.out.print("test ");
14. }
15. public static void main(String[] args) {
16. try { test(); }
17. catch (Exception ex) { System.out.print("exception "); }
18. System.out.print("end ");
19. }
What is the result?
A. end
B. Compilation fails.
C. exception end
D. exception test end
E. A Throwable is thrown by main.
F. An Exception is thrown by main.
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 5
Given:
12. Date date = new Date();
13. df.setLocale(Locale.ITALY);
14. String s = df.format(date);
The variable df is an object of type DateFormat that has been initialized in line 11. What is the
result if this code is run on December 14, 2000?
A. The value of s is 14-dic-2000.
B. The value of s is Dec 14, 2000.
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6
Given that t1 is a reference to a live thread, which is true?
A. The Thread.sleep() method can take t1 as an argument.

B. The Object.notify() method can take t1 as an argument.
C. The Thread.yield() method can take t1 as an argument.
D. The Thread.setPriority() method can take t1 as an argument.
E. The Object.notify() method arbitrarily chooses which thread to notify.
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 7
Given:
1. public class Blip {
2. protected int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Vert extends Blip { 5. // insert code here
6. }
Which five methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile? (Choose five.)
A. public int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
B. private int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
C. private int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected long blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
E. protected int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
F. protected long blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
G. protected long blipvert(int x, int y) { return 0; }
Answer: A,C,E,F,G

QUESTION NO: 8
Given:
1. public class Score implements Comparable<Score> {
2. private int wins, losses;
3. public Score(int w, int l) { wins = w; losses = l; }
4. public int getWins() { return wins; }
5. public int getLosses() { return losses; }
6. public String toString() {
7. return "<" + wins + "," + losses + ">";
8. }
9. // insert code here
10. }
Which method will complete this class?
A. public int compareTo(Object o){/*more code here*/}
B. public int compareTo(Score other){/*more code here*/}
C. public int compare(Score s1,Score s2){/*more code here*/}
D. public int compare(Object o1,Object o2){/*more code here*/}
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
Given:
1. public class Venus {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. int [] x = {1,2,3};
4. int y[] = {4,5,6};
5. new Venus().go(x,y);
6. }
7. void go(int[]... z) {
8. for(int[] a : z)
9. System.out.print(a[0]);
10. }
11. }
What is the result?
A. 1
B. 12
C. 14
D. 123
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
A team of programmers is reviewing a proposed API for a new utility class. After some discussion, they realize that they can reduce the number of methods in the API without losing any functionality. If they implement the new design, which two OO principles will they be promoting?
A. Looser coupling
B. Tighter coupling
C. Lower cohesion
D. Higher cohesion
E. Weaker encapsulation
F. Stronger encapsulation
Answer: A

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1Z0-052: Oracle Database 11g Administration I Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager
(RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In which of the scenario will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 3
In your database instance, the STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC.
What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY
package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query
optimization.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
You want to move all objects of the APPS user in the test database to the DB_USR schema of the
production database. Which option of IMPDP would you use to accomplish this task?
A. FULL
B. SCHEMAS
C. TRANSFORM
D. REMAP_SCHEMA
E. REMAP_TABLESPACE
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
Which three statements are correct about temporary tables? (Choose three.)
A. Indexes and views can be created on temporary tables
B. Both the data and structure of temporary tables can be exported
C. Temporary tables are always created in a user's temporary tablespace
D. The data inserted into a temporary table in a session is available to other sessions
E. Data Manipulation Language (DML) locks are never acquired on the data of temporary tables
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist?
(Choose two.)
A. Failure when no standby database is configured
B. Failure because a data file is renamed accidentally
C. Failure that requires no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. Failure due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 7
What can you achieve by implementing reverse key index?
A. Reverse the bytes of each column indexed including the row ID
B. Store a bitmap for each key value instead of a list of row IDs in the leaf node
C. Prevent contention on the highest leaf block when using sequences to generate keys
D. Remove repeated key values from the index to fit more index entries in a given amount of disk
space
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8
You plan to move data from a flat file to a table in your database. You decide to use SQL*Loader
direct path load method to perform this task. The table in which you plan to load data in an
important table having various integrity constraint defined on it.
Which constraints will remain enabled by default during this operation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. NOT NULL
D. PRIMARY KEY
E. FOREIGN KEY
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 9
The instance abnormally terminates because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to
data files
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
You want to access employee details contained in flat files as part of the EMPLOYEE table. You
plan to add a new column to the EMPLOYEE table to achieve this.
Which data types would you use for the new column?
A. CLOB
B. BLOB
C. BFILE
D. LONG RAW
Answer: C

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1Z0-803: Java SE 7 Programmer I Certification Exam Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Given the code fragment:
String valid = "true";
if (valid) System.out.println (“valid”);
else system.out.println ("not valid");
What is the result?
A. Valid
B. not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Given:
public class DoCompare1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] table = {"aa", "bb", "cc"};
for (String ss: table) {
int ii = 0;
while (ii < table.length) {
System.out.println(ss + ", " + ii);
ii++;
}
}
How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Given:
public class x{
public static void main (string [] args){
String theString = "Hello World";
System.out.println(theString.charAt(11));
}
}
What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Given the code fragment:
String h1 = "Bob";
String h2 = new String ("Bob");
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 == h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Given:
class X {}
class Y {Y () {}}
class Z {z(int i ) {} }
Which class has a default constructor?
A. X only
B. Y only
C. Z only
D. X and Y
E. Y and Z
F. X and Z
G. X, Y and Z
Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 6
Given the fragment:
int [] array = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
System.arraycopy (array, 2, array, 1, 2);
System.out.print (array [1]);
System.out.print (array[4]);
What is the result?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 24
D. 25
E. 34
F. 35
Answer: F

QUESTION NO: 7
Given:
public class MyFor3 {
public static void main(String [] args) {
int [] xx = null;
System.out.println(xx);
}
}
What is the result?
A. null
B. compilation fails
C. Java.lang.NullPointerException
D. 0
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8
Given:
public class ScopeTest1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
doStuff(); // line x1
int x1 = x2; // line x2
int x2 = j; // line x3
}
static void doStuff() {
System.out.println(j); // line x4
}
static int j;
}
Which line causes a compilation error?
A. line x1
B. line x2
C. line x3
D. line x4
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
Which declaration initializes a boolean variable?
A. boolean h = 1;
B. boolean k = 0;
C. boolean m = null;
D. boolean j = (1 < 5) ;

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
You are writing a method that is declared not to return a value. Which two are permitted in the
method body?
A. omission of the return statement
B. return null;
C. return void;
D. return;

Answer: A,D

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C2180-318 IBM Websphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Certification Exam Dumps

QUESTION NO: 1
A system administrator has created a dynamic cluster in a production environment. During the
autonomic server start and stop operations, it was observed that the server is taking more time
than normal and the administrator is always called for manual start/stop of the servers. What
should the system administrator tune to avoid manual intervention?
A. Health controller.
B. Dynamic workload controller.
C. Application placement controller.
D. On-demand configuration manager.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
A system administrator has configured a clustered production WebSphere Application Server
environment. The administrator is now tasked with deploying batch applications to the production
environment and needs to run the batch jobs in parallel. Which of the following is a minimum
requirement for the parallel job manager database configuration? One database:
A. for the cell.
B. per cluster.
C. per grid endpoint.
D. per application server.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
An enterprise application needs to be deployed into a production WebSphere Application Server
environment. The EAR contains application scoped resources which will conflict with the resource
definitions that already exist in the federated environment. How can the system administrator
ensure that the enterprise application uses only the already existing resources?
A. Change the scoping for the existing resources to the cell level.
B. Check that the EAR file is not in the application server classpath.
C. Verify that the classpath does not include the folder containing the application scoped
resources.
D. Make sure that Process embedded configuration is not selected during the deploy process.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A system administrator wishes to use Cross Component Trace (XCT) to follow the end-to-end flow
requests in a cluster. The administrator enables log and trace correlation, but cross component
trace appears to lack the necessary request IDs. What additional step needs to be taken by the
system administrator to have Cross Component Trace function as expected?
A. Enable the replication domain on the cluster.
B. Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL).
C. Add all cluster members to the same core group.
D. Verify all components are part of the same service integration bus.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
A system administrator is concerned about the stability of a new application deployment. The
administrator wishes to utilize Intelligent Management to ensure at least two application servers
are running at all times. How should the system administrator do this?
A. Create a static cluster of two WebSphere Application Servers instances.
B. Create a dynamic cluster with a minimum number of three cluster instances.
C. Create a health management policy to restart the application server in the event of excessive
memory usage.
D. Configure an On-demand Router (ODR) to route requests to a static cluster of two WebSphere
Application Server instances.
Answer: B

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1z0-051 Oracle Database 11g Sql Fundamentals I Dumps: Real Exam Questions

QUESTION NO: 1
Evaluate the SQL statement:
TRUNCATE TABLE DEPT;
Which three are true about the SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A. It releases the storage space used by the table.
B. It does not release the storage space used by the table.
C. You can roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.
D. You can NOT roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.
E. An attempt to use DESCRIBE on the DEPT table after the TRUNCATE statement executes will
display an error.
F. You must be the owner of the table or have DELETE ANY TABLE system privileges to truncate
the DEPT table
Answer: A,D,F

QUESTION NO: 2
Which three statements are true regarding sub queries? (Choose three.)
A. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the main query and sub query
B. Main query and sub query can get data from different tables
C. Sub queries can contain GROUP BY and ORDER BY clauses
D. Main query and sub query must get data from the same tables
E. Sub queries can contain ORDER BY but not the GROUP BY clause
F. Only one column or expression can be compared between the main query and subqeury

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
Where can sub queries be used? (Choose all that apply)
A. field names in the SELECT statement
B. the FROM clause in the SELECT statement
C. the HAVING clause in the SELECT statement
D. the GROUP BY clause in the SELECT statement
E. the WHERE clause in only the SELECT statement
F. the WHERE clause in SELECT as well as all DML statements
Answer: A,B,C,F

QUESTION NO: 4
Which three SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three.)
A.
SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
B.
SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C.
SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
D.
SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
E.
SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 5
Evaluate the following SQL statements:
DELETE FROM sales;
There are no other uncommitted transactions on the SALES table.
Which statement is true about the DELETE statement?
A. It removes all the rows as well as the structure of the table
B. It removes all the rows in the table and deleted rows cannot be rolled back
C. It removes all the rows in the table and deleted rows can be rolled back
D. It would not remove the rows if the table has a primary key
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
The ORDERS TABLE belongs to the user OE. OE has granted the SELECT privilege on the
ORDERS table to the user HR.
Which statement would create a synonym ORD so that HR can execute the following query
successfully?
SELECT * FROM ord;
A. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
B. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
C. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database
administrator.
D. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database
administrator.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
Examine the statement:
Create synonym emp for hr.employees;
What happens when you issue the statement?
A. An error is generated.
B. You will have two identical tables in the HR schema with different names.
C. You create a table called employees in the HR schema based on you EMP table.
D. You create an alternative name for the employees table in the HR schema in your own schema.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Evaluate the following SQL query;
What would be the outcome?
A. 200
B. 16
C. 160
D. 150
E. 100
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Which statement is true regarding the UNION operator?
A. The number of columns selected in all SELECT statements need to be the same
B. Names of all columns must be identical across all SELECT statements
C. By default, the output is not sorted
D. NULL values are not ignored during duplicate checking
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL
value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and
NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates
and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE
clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types
Answer: A,C

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1. C2180-184: IBM WebSphere Message Broker V7.0, System Administration
2. C4040-221:  AIX 7 Administration
3. C2180-277: IBM WebSphere Message Broker V8.0 System Administration
4. C2180-318: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Core Administration
5. C2180-374: IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration
6. C2180-377: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration

IBM DB2 Certification:

1. C2090-541: DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows
2. C2090-545: DB2 9.7 SQL Procedure Developer
3. C2090-610: DB2 10.1 Fundamentals
4. C2090-612: DB2 10 DBA for z/OS
5. C2090-614: DB2 10.1 Advanced DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows
6. C2090-730: DB2 9 Family Fundamentals

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1. C2140-130: IBM Rational ClearCase v7.1
2. C2180-271: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1, Deployment
3. C2180-276: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
4. C2180-608: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Deployment
5. C2030-283:  Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V3
6. Test  664:     SOA Fundamentals
7. C2050-724: IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0, System Administration

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2. 1Z0-043: Oracle Database 10g: Administration II
3. 1Z0-045: Oracle Database 10g DBA New Features for Oracle8i OCPs
4. 1Z0-046: Oracle Database 10g: Managing Oracle on Linux for DBAs
5. 1Z0-047: Oracle Database SQL Certified Expert
6. 1Z0-048: Oracle Database 10g R2: Administering RAC
7. 1Z0-050: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional , OPN Certified Specialist
8. 1Z0-051: Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I
9. 1Z0-052: Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
10. 1Z0-053: Oracle Database 11g: Administration II
11. 1Z0-054: Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning
12. 1Z0-055: Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
13. 1Z0-058: Oracle Certified Expert, Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g and Grid Infrastructure Administrator
14. 1Z0-060: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c Administrator
15. 1Z0-061: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
16. 1Z0-062: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
17. 1Z0-102: Oracle Weblogic Server 11g: System Administration I
18. 1Z0-144: Oracle Database 11g: Program with PL/SQL
19. 1Z0-146: Oracle Database 11g: Advanced PL/SQL
20. 1Z0-147: Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate
21. 1Z0-515: Oracle Database 11g: Data Warehouse Essentials 
22. 1Z0-528: Oracle Database 11g Security Essential

Oracle Middle-ware Certification:

1. 1Z0-108: Oracle WebLogic System Administration
2. 1Z0-109: Oracle WebLogic Server 10g Developer
3. 1Z0-141: Oracle Forms: Build Internet Applications
4. 1Z0-202: Associated Certifications: Siebel 8 Consultant Certified Expert OPN Certified Specialist
5. 1Z0-238: Oracle EBS R12: Install, Patch and Maintain Applications
6. 1z0-516: Oracle EBS R12.1 General Ledger Essentials
7. 1Z0-518: Oracle E-Business Suite 12 Financial Management Certified Implementation Specialist: Oracle Receivables , OPN Certified Specialist
8. 1z0-519: Oracle EBS R12.1 Inventory Essentials
9. 1Z0-521: Oracle E-Business Suite 12 Supply Chain Certified Implementation Specialist: Oracle Order Management OPN Certified Specialist
10. 1Z0-554: Oracle Application Development Framework Essentials 
11. 1Z0-599: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials

Oracle Java Certification:

1. 1Z0-803: Java SE 7 Programmer I  
2. 1Z0-804: Java SE 7 Programmer II 
3. 1Z0-805: Upgrade to Java SE 7 Programmer 
4. 1Z0-851: Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Exam
5. 1Z0-858: Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Component Developer Certified Professional Exam
6. 1Z0-860: Java Enterprise Edition 5 Business Component Developer Certified Professional Exam
7. 1Z0-862: Java Enterprise Edition 5 Web Services Developer Certified Professional Exam
8. 1Z0-895: Java EE 6 Enterprise JavaBeans Developer Certified Expert Exam
9. 1Z0-897: Java EE 6 Web Services Developer Certified Expert Exam
10. 1Z0-898: Java EE 6 Java Persistence API Developer Certified Expert Exam
11. 1Z0-899: Java Platform, EE 6 Web Component Developer Certified Expert Exam

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